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Psalms 138:2 I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy  word above all thy name.

When you see a capital "Word" in the bible, the reference is to Jesus Christ.

*EXAMPLE* John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God.

When you see a small "word" in the bible, it's referring to the written "words" of God.

*EXAMPLE* Luke 21:33 Heaven and earth shall pass away:
but my words shall not pass away.

Will you be honest and objective and read this file with an open mind? If you will, I believe that you will see that God "PRESERVED" His perfect "words" in a perfect form.

He gave His "words" to the people they were intended for, at the very time He purposed it. For example, before Moses wrote anything, God talked personally to Adam, Cain, Noah, Abraham, etc. Then God moved Moses and the other Prophets in the Old Testament to speak or write the "words" He wanted them to say without impairing or destroying their individual personalities and style at the very time He intended for them to write or so their scribes could write them down.

2 Pet 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

2 Tim 3:15,16 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction,
for instruction in righteousness:

Psalms 12:6,7 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. 7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt
preserve them from this generation for ever.

Notice "SCRIPTURE" is "GIVEN" by "INSPIRATION", not "WRITTEN", that is, when God inspired the men to speak, what they said was inspired, when it was written down, then it was preserved in the form God intended. If the "words" were NOT preserved, they couldn't have been "PROFITABLE" to anyone.

Also notice the "SCRIPTURES" Timothy knew from a child, couldn't have been the "ORIGINALS", but they were "PRESERVED". (see 2 Tim. 2:15 above) The bible says the same thing in Isaiah 59:21.

Isaiah 59:21 As for me, this is my covenant with them, saith the LORD; My spirit that is upon thee, and my words which I have put in thy mouth, shall not depart out of thy mouth, nor out of the mouth of thy seed, nor out of the mouth of thy seed's seed, saith the LORD,
from henceforth and for ever.

Originally God had the Old Testament written in Hebrew and part in Chaldean. The New Testament was written in Greek. We now have at least five Hebrew texts and over
eighty seven Greek texts. Each Hebrew text is different from the others.
The same holds true with the Greek texts. Can you tell which is right?
There is no way you can absolutely know for sure.

The following information is mostly from Laurence M. Vance's "A BRIEF HISTORY OF BIBLE TRANSLATIONS", which you can obtain from the Bible Baptist Bookstore,
P.O. Box 7135, Pensacola FL. 32534.

The five Hebrew Texts are:

1. The first Rabbinic Hebrew bible with full vowel-points and accents was published
in 1516-17 by Daniel Bomberg.

2. Jacob ben Chayyim edited the second edition of this work in 1524-25. This became the authoritative Hebrew text of the King James Bible.

3. There are three editions of Kittels "BIBLIA HEBRAICA", the last one was in 1937.

4. The first edition of a Hebrew text published under the authority of Christians was the "COMPLUTENSIAN POLYGLOT". It was completed in 1517 and published in 1522.
A "POLYGLOT" is [Gr. many, and tongue.]  Having or containing many languages; as a
polyglot lexicon or Bible. Other "POLYGLOTS" were the "ANTWERP 1569-72",
"The PARIS 1629-45", and the "LONDON 1655-57".
The Hebrew text may not have been changed in the "POLYGLOTS".

The eighty seven Greek Texts are:

ERASMUS, 5 editions from 1516 to 1535, COLINAEUS, 1 edition 1534, STEPHANUS, 4 editions from 1546 to 1551, BEZA had 10 editions, the ELZEVIR PARNERS had 7 editions from 1624 TO 1678, FELL, 1 edition in 1675, MILL, 1 edition in 1707, WELLS, 1 edition in 1709-19, MACE, 1 edition in 1729, BENGEL, 1 edition in 1734, WETTSTEIN, 1 edition in 1751-52, BOWYER, 1 edition in 1763, GRIESBACH, 2 editions from 1777 to 1806, MATTHAEI, 2 editions from 1788 to 1807, ALTER and SCHOLZ, 2 editions from 1787 to 1836, LACHMANN, 2 editions, TISCHENDORF, 8 editions from 1841 to 1872, ALFORD, 6 editions from 1849 to 1861, TREGELLES, 1 edition, completed in 1872, WESTCOTT and HORT, 1 edition in 1881, the Revised Version's Greek text, 2 editions, 1881 and 1947, WEYMOUTH, 1 edition in 1886, WEISS had 2 editions, VON SODEN had 1 edition, as did MERK, VOGELS, BOVER and TASKER. NESTLE'S text has went through 26 editions, 12 by EBERHARD, 8 by his son and the rest by ALAND, the first was in 1898 and the current in 1979. The text called "THE GREEK NEW  TESTAMENT" has 4 editions, HODGES and FARSTAD, 1 edition in 1982 and RIBINSON and PIERPONT, 1 edition in 1991.

Well, there they are, "EIGHTY SEVEN GREEK TEXTS" and "FIVE HEBREW TEXTS". Every single one is different, some have more than "Thirty thousand" changes from one text to another. Which one of the five HEBREW texts and eighty seven GREEK texts has
all the words that God has preserved perfectly? (PS. 12:6,7)

There is absolutely no way you can be 100% sure which HEBREW and which GREEK text is right. Even if you did know positively which was right, which scholar would you let translate the bible for you? If you had five each of the best Hebrew and Greek professors in the world, and you gave each one a copy of the same Hebrew or Greek text, you would have five bibles that were different. There are over "TWO HUNDRED" English translations on the market now and most of these were translated from the same Hebrew and Greek texts. If you would check, you would see that none are the same. Now you should be able to see that God had to preserve His "words" in the "AUTHORIZED KING JAMES BIBLE". This is the bible that brought about the greatest revivals in the history of mankind.


1st. Awakening, About 1720-1750. This revival came from the preaching of
Jonathan Edwards, George Whitefield, Gilbert Tennent, his son William Tennent
and Theodore Frelinghuysen.
The 2nd. Great Awakening was from about 1780-1810. Some of the preachers God used then were Peter Cartwright Charles G. Finney, James McGready and Lorenzo Dow.
God used other preachers in the late 1800s and early 1900s to bring revival.
Some of these were Moody, Torrey, Sunday, etc.

Every one of these men preached one book, the Authorized King James Bible. Since about 1930 there hasn't been one major revival. I believe the reason is no one has an absolute final authority any more. Back in the 1800s, lost people knew the King James Bible was the word of God, and they had a reverence for the "Good Book".

This file was written because the majority of saved people in this country have been "DECEIVED" by "PREACHERS", who have been "DECEIVED" by "PROFESSORS IN BIBLE SCHOOLS", who were "DECEIVED" by the "DEVIL".

The Devil tried to keep people in the dark ages from reading the bible by using the "ROMAN CATHOLIC CHURCH" to torture and burn Christians at the stake.  Since the late 1800S till now, the Devil has effectively caused the majority of Christians to lose their faith in an "ABSOLUTE FINAL AUTHORITY". He has accomplished this by flooding the market with so called "BIBLES" that are different from the King James Bible in more than  "THIRTY THOUSAND PLACES". They attack the Deity of Christ, the blood atonement and many other major doctrines.  Here are a few of the many places they are corrupt.

Here is a partial list of the corruption of the new "bibles".

1. New American Standard Version

2. Revised Standard Version

3. New English Bible

4. New International Version

5. Today's English Version-Good News Bible


Matt. 17:21 (1,2,3,4,5);  Matt. 18:11 (2,3,4,5);  Matt. 21:44 (2,3,5);  Matt. 23:14 (2,3,4,5)

 Mk. 7:16 (1,2,3,4,5); ); Mk. 9:44,46 (1,2,3,4,5); Mk. 11:26 (1,2,3,4,5); Mk. 15:28 (1,2,3,4,5)

Lk. 17:36 (1,2,3,4,5); Lk. 22:20 (2,3); Lk. 23:17 (1,2,3,4,5); Lk. 24:12 (2,3); Lk. 24:40 (1,2,3)

Jn. 5:4 (1,2,3,4,5) Acts 8:37 (1,2,3,4,5); Acts 24:7 (1,2,3,4,5); Acts 28:29 (1,2,3,4,5)

Rom. 16:24 (1,2,3,4,5)

Are these God's "words"? Who has the authority to take these verses completely out of the bible? Although all of the new "BIBLES" are corrupt, the ones used here are some of the most popular modern translations. There are too many verses to list that are changed.

NOTE: The above references came from a tract called "LAODICEAN BOOK STORE" from Bible Believers Baptist Church, 4646 E. Bus. Hwy. 98 Parker FL. 32404.


1. Luke 2:33 And Joseph and his mother marvelled at those things which
were spoken of him.

Most other versions attack the "DEITY" of Jesus Christ by saying, "the child's father and mother", making Joseph His father.  This is a doctrinal statement by Luke.
God was His father. LK. 1:35

2. 1Tim 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles,
believed on in the world, received up into glory.

Again the other versions attack the 'DEITY" of Jesus Christ by taking "God" out of the verse.

3. Matt 5:22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment:

Did Jesus get angry? Ö "YES" Ö Mark 3:5 And when he had looked round
about on them with anger,

Most other versions take out three words "without a cause" This makes a sinner out of Jesus Christ, because He was angry in Mark 3:5, but also He was angry when he drove the salesmen and money changers out of the Temple in John chapter 2. In both cases Jesus "had a cause".

4. Col. 1:14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:

Other versions take out "through his blood" or put the phrase in brackets, attacking the "BLOOD ATONEMENT". There is no forgiveness of sins without the "blood" of Jesus Christ.

5. Psalms 9:17 The wicked shall be turned into hell, and all the nations that forget God.

The new versions send the wicked to the same place Abraham, Isaac and Jacob went to by changing "hell" to "grave" or "Sheol", Gen 49:33 And when Jacob had made an end of commanding his sons, he gathered up his feet into the bed, and yielded up the ghost,
and was gathered unto his people.

(Jacob's soul went to Paradise, his body went to the grave)

How can the wicked "RETURN" to the grave as the NIV says?  Were they born in the grave?  The HEBREW word for "grave" is transliterated "sheol", the same HEBREW word is used in:

Prov. 23:14, Thou shalt beat him with the rod, and shalt deliver his soul from hell.

(Whether you whip a child or not, when he dies he is still going to the "grave", so the King James is right and all the rest are wrong.)

As you should have seen from this file, Satan is still working in the same way now as he did in the Garden of Eden, where he told Eve: "Yea, hath God said .....? Eve then added to and took away from what God said. See Genesis 3:3 compared to Genesis 2:16,17. Notice the words "freely", "surely" and "neither shall ye touch it". These so called "Bible" translators of today are doing the very same thing now that Eve did 6000 years ago. They are in the "EVEITE CULT". I have in my Authorized King James Bible, God's absolute final authority in all matters of faith and practice. Who, where or what is your absolute final authority?


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